"If B is magnetic field and μ0\mu_0 is permeability of free space, then the dimensions of (B/μ0\mu_0) is"" (1) MT –2 A –1 (2) L –1 A (3) LT –2 A –1 (4) ML 2 T –2 A –1"

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Published July 8, 2025
Physics
Electromagnetism
Dimensional Analysis

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Detailed Explanation

1. Magnetic field from the Lorentz force

For a charge qq moving with velocity vv through a magnetic field BB, the magnitude of magnetic force is

F=q v Bsin⁡θF = q\,v\,B\sin\theta

Ignoring sin⁡θ\sin\theta (dimensionless),

B=Fq vB = \dfrac{F}{q\,v}

  • Force has dimensions [M L T−2][M\,L\,T^{-2}].
  • Charge has dimensions [I T][I\,T] (current × time).
  • Velocity has dimensions [L T−1][L\,T^{-1}].

So

[B]=M L T−2(I T)(L T−1)=M T−2 I−1[B] = \dfrac{M\,L\,T^{-2}}{(I\,T)(L\,T^{-1})} = M\,T^{-2}\,I^{-1}


2. Permeability of free space μ0\mu_0

From the constitutive relation in vacuum

B=μ0 HB = \mu_0\,H

and the fact that magnetic field intensity HH has dimensions of current per length,

[H]=I L−1[H] = I\,L^{-1}

Therefore

[μ0]=[B][H]=M T−2 I−1I L−1=M L T−2 I−2[\mu_0] = \dfrac{[B]}{[H]} = \dfrac{M\,T^{-2}\,I^{-1}}{I\,L^{-1}} = M\,L\,T^{-2}\,I^{-2}


3. Putting it together: Bμ0\dfrac{B}{\mu_0}

[Bμ0]=M T−2 I−1M L T−2 I−2=L−1 I+1\left[\dfrac{B}{\mu_0}\right] = \dfrac{M\,T^{-2}\,I^{-1}}{M\,L\,T^{-2}\,I^{-2}} = L^{-1}\,I^{+1}

So the dimensional formula is L−1AL^{-1} A → Option (2).

Simple Explanation (ELI5)

What is the question?

We want to know what basic "building-blocks" (mass, length, time, current) make up the quantity Bμ0\dfrac{B}{\mu_0}.

Baby-step idea 🧒🏻

  1. Think of a magnet pulling on a moving electric charge. The pull (force) depends on the magnetic field BB.
  2. The famous rule is
    F=q  v  BF = q \; v \; B
    (force = charge × speed × magnetic field).
  3. By rearranging we can describe BB in terms of the already-known force, charge and speed.
  4. Then we use another rule B=μ0 HB = \mu_0\,H to express μ0\mu_0.
  5. Finally we divide the two answers and see which basic units remain.

After the dust settles, only length in the denominator and current in the numerator survive, giving the answer L−1AL^{-1}A (option 2).

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Step-by-Step Solution

Step-by-Step Calculation

  1. Start with the Lorentz force law F=q v BF = q\,v\,B [F] = MLT−2M L T^{-2} [q] = ITI T [v] = LT−1L T^{-1}

  2. Isolate BB and write its dimensions

    B=Fqv⟹[B]=MLT−2(IT)(LT−1)=M T−2 I−1B = \dfrac{F}{q v} \quad\Longrightarrow\quad [B] = \dfrac{M L T^{-2}}{(I T)(L T^{-1})} = M\,T^{-2}\,I^{-1}

  3. Use the relation B=μ0HB = \mu_0 H [H] = IL−1I L^{-1}

    [μ0]=[B][H]=MT−2I−1IL−1=MLT−2I−2[\mu_0] = \dfrac{[B]}{[H]} = \dfrac{M T^{-2} I^{-1}}{I L^{-1}} = M L T^{-2} I^{-2}

  4. Compute [B/μ0][B/\mu_0]

    [Bμ0]=MT−2I−1MLT−2I−2=L−1I+1\left[\dfrac{B}{\mu_0}\right] = \dfrac{M T^{-2} I^{-1}}{M L T^{-2} I^{-2}} = L^{-1} I^{+1}

  5. Write in standard dimensional form

    [B/μ0]=L−1A[B/\mu_0] = L^{-1} A

  6. Match with the given options

    Option (2): L−1AL^{-1} A ✅

Final Answer: Option (2)

Examples

Example 1

Designing MRI machines where the ratio of magnetic field to permeability determines magnetic energy density

Example 2

Calculating magnetic pressure in astrophysical jets using B^2 / (2 μ0)

Example 3

Estimating force on a current-carrying wire using B and μ0 values

Visual Representation

References

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